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Mary: Evidence shows different outcomeTue, 07/31/2007 - 4:50pm
By: Letters to the ...
I would like to respectfully disagree with Mr. Murphy’s conclusion that the cumulative evidence from the Bible shows that Jesus had siblings. First of all, Mr. Murphy’s assumption, based on John 7:3-5, that none of Jesus’ (theoretical) siblings believed in Him at the time of His public ministry cannot be true, because Gal 1:19 explicitly refers to “James, the Apostle, the brother of the Lord.” If we accept Mr. Murphy’s interpretation of this passage, we must assume that this James is the same “brother” referred to in Mark 6:3, where Joses, Judas, and Simon are also listed as “brothers.” However, James the Apostle cannot be the Lord’s brother because neither of the two James mentioned in the list of the Apostles at the beginning of Matthew 10 are referred to as “the son of Joseph;” one is the son of Alphaeus, the other is the son of Zebedee. Obviously this man wasn’t Jesus’ brother, and if he wasn’t one of the Lord’s siblings then the other people mentioned in Mark 6:3 probably weren’t either. In light of this, I agree with Mr. Hoffman in saying that when the New Testament refers to “brothers of the Lord” it is probably talking about cousins. It is true, as Mr. Murphy mentioned, that the New Testament was written in Greek, where there was a word that could be used to specifically designate a cousin. However, in the Old Testament (most of which was originally written in Hebrew) the word “brother” was used to designate a relative, as is seen in Gen 14:14, where older English translations actually call Lot Abraham’s brother, though Lot was actually Abraham’s nephew (it should be noted that many of the modern translators have taken this apparent discrepancy into account and call Lot Abraham’s kinsman). This wording (a del phos) of Gen 14:14 was kept when the Greek Septuagint translation of the Old Testament was made, and the Jewish writers of the New Testament would have kept this wording when writing their books. The exception that Mr. Murphy mentions (Luke 21:16) was just that: an exception. Jesus wished to make a distinction between siblings and relatives in this passage, so He did. If He had wished not to make this distinction, He could just have used the word family. Also, J. B. Lightfoot’s point that St. Jerome pleaded no traditional defense of his “cousin theory” may be true, but that doesn’t mean that it wasn’t defendable. The early Church Father Athanasius referred to the “Ever-Virgin Mary” in his work “The Monk’s History of Arian Impiety,” which was written in 358 A.D. This predates St. Jerome’s biblical “cousin theory” by 25 years, but more important is the fact that St. Athanasius doesn’t speak about Mary’s perpetual virginity as if it were something novel; he simply mentions it in passing, as if it were something that had been long established. Lastly, concerning Mr. Murphy’s statement that one should not trust what churches say, but that they should read the Bible: if one’s authority is the Bible alone, the question that arises is, “Who has the authority to interpret the Bible?” Mr. Murphy and I have both read scripture, and in this instance we have come to two very different conclusions concerning it. Who is right? If we use the Bible alone, we can both claim to be right, because we can both claim to have been led to our separate conclusions by the Holy Spirit, and no one can tell us otherwise. This leads to doctrinal uncertainty, and that can’t have been what Jesus intended (1 Cor 1:10). Judging by 2 Thess. 2:15, which talks about written and unwritten tradition, and 1 Tim. 3:15, which calls the Church the protector and defender of the Truth (notice that it doesn’t say the written Truth) I think that we can conclude that Jesus left us a Church that had the authority to make judgments concerning doctrinal disputes, the authority to bind and loose (Mt 16:18-19). Ethan Milukas Peachtree City, Ga. login to post comments |